Try the political quiz

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  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…8mos8MO

Simple: because it is about consent. If a woman wants the baby, and someone else takes that from her, then they have violated the consent of the mother; however, if a woman does not consent to the baby using her body (pregnancy), then she has the right of bodily autonomy to stop it from doing so (abortion), thus no right of consent was violated. Easy peasy...

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